Lots of things are not commonly accepted by some but known facts to many others.
Sure. But you said the human ear is more sensitive than Ethan thinks it is and that there's a lot that's not so well known or accepted. So my "Such as..." had to do with the human ear, which is what your claim was about, not about other examples having nothing to do with the human ear.
So are you questioning my question here?
No, I'm questioning the statement you made following your question.
Why does one pre-amp allow for a deep sound stage and then another one jumbles the sound stage up in a 2 dimensional way. The ear detects it quickly and easily.You're talking aobut soundstage as it relates to different preamps and claiming that the ear detects it quickly and easily. So I was simply wondering what the proof is that the one preamp is jumbling up the soundstage in the first place.
I am sorry you did not get the point I was trying to make. I'll try to be more clear.
Ok.
One measurement or group of measurements does not a complete picture make. You can't get the whole picture from one aspect.
Well I guess that depends on what you mean by "a complete picture."
So far it appears to me that some have been trying to expand the picture well beyond the context of the original remarks which started this line of discussion when they've gone on about the "what instrument is playing" thing.
That is hilarious. I suppose one could be fooled into thinking one instrument was another.
Depending on the instruments involved, it's not entirely impossible that that could be the case.
But we're not talking about gross differences such as say that between a flute and an oboe.
I would like to think that any difference (audible difference) can be verified in some way by measuring it in some way. However, the quantifiable answer often involves a subjective analysis of measured data.
Mmmm. Ok...
For instance cable A has a measured difference in RFI rejection over cable B. Subjective part: Cable A sounds different because of the difference in RFI rejection. Or could it be the difference in the dielectric material due to thickness or composition? See what I mean?
Ok. But in either case you haven't shown that the difference wouldn't be measureable. And that's really the whole gist of all this.
Are you asking for proof of a subjective conclusion? You mean like, did they sound different because they really did sound different or did they sound different because we thought they should sound different?
Well in this case your "they sound different too" in your original statement seemed to imply they sounded different due to an actual audible difference.
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