[Jose Garcia]

Excuse my ignorance here but,

1- Given a speaker could be tri-amped : Should I get similar results if using a 6 channel amplifier or 3 stereo amplifiers from a similar brand with equal specifications for power, impedance, etc...?

2- Given I could Bi-amplify : Is it the same to use vertical or horizontal amplification?

I'm not sure about this questions but a friend has his speakers bi-amped with a 5 channel amplifier ( ATI 2505) and he said he used them that way for convinience....  

Jose.

[doug s.]

Excuse my ignorance here but,

1- Given a speaker could be tri-amped : Should I get similar results if using a 6 channel amplifier or 3 stereo amplifiers from a similar brand with equal specifications for power, impedance, etc...?

2- Given I could Bi-amplify : Is it the same to use vertical or horizontal amplification?

I'm not sure about this questions but a friend has his speakers bi-amped with a 5 channel amplifier ( ATI 2505) and he said he used them that way for convinience....  

Jose.

1. - in theory, you would get similar performance.  but, three stereo amps from the same mfr will likely have better power supplies in total, then one six-channel amp.  bottom line - check the mfr yure considering...

2. - at one point i had two identical amps, & i bi-amped vertically.  i liked the idea of using a separate amp for each speaker.  the amps were true dual-mono designs - separate toroid & circuitry for each channel.  was it better than horizontal bi-amping?  i never tried it, so i dunno.  in theory, since my amps were true dual-mono designs, it shouldn't have made a difference either way.

if yure using two different amps, then ya obviously *have* to horizontally bi-amp, & ya have to make sure you can gain-match the different amps, if they have different sensitivity ratings...

doug s.

[Jose Garcia]

Gracias Doug.

I apreciate your help.

BTW.... Our audio friend, the Psychicanimal is still in PR and searching for a new local job. I believe he will stay if he find something soon, if not, he will go back to Florida ( his last home...).

Jose.

[doug s.]

Gracias Doug.

I apreciate your help.

BTW.... Our audio friend, the Psychicanimal is still in PR and searching for a new local job. I believe he will stay if he find something soon, if not, he will go back to Florida ( his last home...).

Jose.

hi jose,

thanks for the heads-up on francisco, i was wondering how he was doin'; hadn't heard from him lately...

regards,

doug s.

[ctviggen]

What's the difference between vertical and horizontal biamping?  When I biamp my speakers, I split the signal, send it to one amp which drives the mids/highs, and send it to another amp that drives the lows.  Is this vertical biamping?

[doug s.]

What's the difference between vertical and horizontal biamping?  When I biamp my speakers, I split the signal, send it to one amp which drives the mids/highs, and send it to another amp that drives the lows.  Is this vertical biamping?

what yure doing is horizontal bi-amping.  if you split the signal & send the low pass to the left channel of two separate amps & the mid/high pass to the right channel of these two separate amps, that's wertical bi-amping.  one stereo amp for one 2-way speaker; the other stereo amp for the other 2-way speaker.  you *have* to have identical amps for wertical bi-amping...

doug s.

[ctviggen]

I still don't understand.  I've done the following:  I split the signal from my preamp.  The right signal is split into two signals, R1 and R2.  I took R1 and used one channel of my five-channel amplifier to power the lows of one of my RM40s (the right RM40).  I took R2 and used one channel of my two-channel amplifier to power the mids/highs of the right RM40.  I did the exact same thing for my left RM40.  I did this for a while.  Now, I split my center channel output into two signals and amplify both of them using channels of my five-channel amplifier.  Is this still horizontal biamping?

[doug s.]

I still don't understand.  I've done the following:  I split the signal from my preamp.  The right signal is split into two signals, R1 and R2.  I took R1 and used one channel of my five-channel amplifier to power the lows of one of my RM40s (the right RM40).  I took R2 and used one channel of my two-channel amplifier to power the mids/highs of the right RM40.  I did the exact same thing for my left RM40.  I did this for a while.  Now, I split my center channel output into two signals and amplify both of them using channels of my five-channel amplifier.  Is this still horizontal biamping?

your situation is different - you have only one multichannel amp.  horizontal vs vertical bi-amping is when you have a pair of identical stereo amps, & speakers that can be bi-amped.  you can use one amp to drive the bass of both speakers, & the second amp to drive the mid/treble of both speakers.  this is what's considered horizontal bi-amping.  or, you could use one stereo amp on each separate l/r speaker, w/left amp channel driving woofer, & right amp channel driving tweeter.   this is considered wertical bi-amping.  (or vertical bi-amping, for purists!   )  

hth,

doug s.

[woodsyi]

Yes, since you got your 2 channel amp split horizontally to handle mid/high's of your front left and right.  with multi channel amps the terms virtical and horizontal looses meaning just as if you used all same monoblocks.

[mcgsxr]

I ran the two Teac tripath amps in vertical biamping, with my Totem Rokk speakers, when I had the two stock teacs, and the Totems.

I noticed better dynamics, but not much else - could be the amps, could be me...

[OBF]

I split the signal from my preamp.  The right signal is split into two signals, R1 and R2.

Do you have 2 sets of outputs, or are you using a splitter as it sounds like from your post?  Does this work ok without degrading the signal?  Someone I know would like to use 2 identical stereo amps as monoblocks which he could do by vertically biamping, but he only has one set of preamp outs.

[doug s.]

I split the signal from my preamp.  The right signal is split into two signals, R1 and R2.

Do you have 2 sets of outputs, or are you using a splitter as it sounds like from your post?  Does this work ok without degrading the signal?  Someone I know would like to use 2 identical stereo amps as monoblocks which he could do by vertically biamping, but he only has one set of preamp outs.

many preamps w/two sets of outputs in fact have them connected internally.  using a splitter should pose no problems.  but, you do have to be careful of the impedence matching.  splitting the preamp output is equivalent to doubling its output impedence.  and your preamp's output impedence shouldn't be more than 10% of your amp's input impedence.  

i have used these to good effect, from the hi-pass outputs of a marchand x-over to a stereo amp for vertical bi-amping:

http://www.partsexpress.com/pe/showdetl.cfm?&DID=7&Partnumber=091-1045


http://www.partsexpress.com/pe/showdetl.cfm?&DID=7&Partnumber=091-510


doug s.

[OBF]

but, you do have to be careful of the impedence matching.  splitting the preamp output is equivalent to doubling its output impedence.  and your preamp's output impedence shouldn't be more than 10% of your amp's input impedence

Hmmm..well since the two amps in question are almost identical but do in fact have different input impedances I guess that would do away with the "monoblock" idea and force horizontal biamping as the best option.  Either way it would still require a splitter like you linked.

Thanks for the tips.

[doug s.]

but, you do have to be careful of the impedence matching.  splitting the preamp output is equivalent to doubling its output impedence.  and your preamp's output impedence shouldn't be more than 10% of your amp's input impedence

Hmmm..well since the two amps in question are almost identical but do in fact have different input impedances I guess that would do away with the "monoblock" idea and force horizontal biamping as the best option.  Either way it would still require a splitter like you linked.

Thanks for the tips.

in order to do wertical bi-amping, the amps should be exactly the same make/model.  you don't want different type amps on your left channel vs the right channel, do you?  i am curious as to what amps you have that are "almost identical", but have different input impedences.

and, re: horizontal bi-amping, if yer amps are different, you may have more gain w/one than the other.  (check your amps input sensitivity ratings.)  if this is the case, you have to have some way of reducing the gain of the amp that has more.  

hth,

doug s.

[OBF]

i am curious as to what amps you have that are "almost identical", but have different input impedences.

I don't have 2 of these, but I'm referring to an original eAR amp and one that has been upgraded with Peter's modified modules that add short protection and up the input impedance from 7.5k to 50k.  As far as I know the other specs like sensitivity and gain are the same (unless whatever circuit changes that increase the i.i. mandates something else change).  I think they would work fine horizontally, but I would be concerned with the impedance match on the older amp with the splitter, although the person is using a SS pre so I think it would be fine.

[doug s.]

I don't have 2 of these, but I'm referring to an original eAR amp and one that has been upgraded with Peter's modified modules that add short protection and up the input impedance from 7.5k to 50k.  As far as I know the other specs like sensitivity and gain are the same (unless whatever circuit changes that increase the i.i. mandates something else change).  I think they would work fine horizontally, but I would be concerned with the impedance match on the older amp with the splitter, although the person is using a SS pre so I think it would be fine.

as long as the preamp's output impedence is <350 ohms, there shouldn't be an impedence issue.  this issue, tho, would be present regardless of whether ya were running the amps wertically or horizontally.  these amps seem different enuff to me that i'd definitely wanna run 'em horizontazlly...

doug s.