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Does a sealed enclosure present a higher impedance drive for an amp, compared to a vented type or any other for that matter?
One notable speaker I know of ranges from 4 ohms to 42 ohms, an absurd range, and yet costs thousands of dollars. This sort of poor design is quite common.
Also, I would like your opinion on something. One very reputable (previously DIY) manufacturer of loudspeakers conveyed the importance of flattening the impedance, but only flattened the midrange impedance. He did nothing do flatten the impedance in the bass region. This made very little sense to me because the propensity of amplifier energy is conveyed in the bass region. I kinda' thought that flattening the impedance curve would be most advantageous in the bass region. Of course, the component values are much larger and more expensive. What do you think?
So if the impedance "peak" is reduced in a sealed enclosure, what happens to the lower impedance curve?Does this present a better drive for the amp itself if a sealed box is used, from you explantion I gather, in a sealed enclosure, there is more resistance to the cone going backwards, so it would show as a higher nominal impedance for the amp?I am mainly intrested in the relationship of sealed vs. vented and how the nominal low impedance is effected as far as the amp is concerned, in all honesty, the answer to my question may lie within your technically sound response, but I am having a hard time discerning that fact since my knowledge is limited (sorry for being redundant).
David, help, I need your input here!!