thanks new vinyl, i use the same test LP but i get very different results.
to be honest i find it astounding that your setup seems to behave exactly as the damned formula dictates...
are you shure you dont perceive just what you want to perceive?
i mean there are whole industries out there that want to, and perfectly can, make a living out of this effect and it is so natural that one has to be very, very careful about it.
so please dont be bothered if i want to stay skeptical about your statement.
visibility of armresonance om WT arms?
I have some resonance effects and it is in no case visible, neither the needle nor the arm. And i used a magnifing glass.
so, seeing arm resonace... i dont believe in it, exept maybe in a case of "catastrophic system failure"
here are my results:
lateral resonance test:
i can hear modulation of the 1kHz pilot starting at around 19Hz peaking at 15Hz dropping until 11Hz and rolling of. a very slight modulation stays for the lower frequencies
vertical resonance test:
is somewhat different, i have a peak in modulation at 20&18Hz then it all but goes away and another very low peak apears at 10Hz and rolls of again
maybe i hear what i want to hear the other way round and should not bother with slight modulation.
but modulation is modulation as well as distortion is distortion, if it is there i just dont want to ignore it.
my conclusion at this stage:
you mostly have to live with what you have bought into because all the changes in damping, counterweight mass and position are quite small.
meaning: I can (if at all) hear some effect but the basic resonance characteristics do not really change.
the most effective thing i did was adding +5g mass to the headshell
-> i will follow this route for experimenting
here is a thread that cleared up things for me:https://forum.audiogon.com/discussions/tonearm-effective-mass
regarding the damned formula:
Effective mass is a function of mass X the SQUARE of the distance from the pivot, so changing the distance has a larger effect than a change in mass.
-> this fact is nowhere to be seen in the circulating version of the formula, exept that M should represent exactly that but nobody seems to care and just adds some static value for arm-mass
-> therefore i wont trust any calculations made that way
Is there any one out there who can handle this mathematical problem?
(I tried but i dont trust myself on this, same goes for the scale i used)
also i still need the masses of the counterweights ( i got 25g and 70g but my scale is just 10g exact so i dont really know)