Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?

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ricardojoa

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #40 on: 17 May 2013, 07:59 am »
Some things are true whether you believe them or not.

It's pesky a lot of the times, but that's the way it is.  :)

Cheers,

Dave.

Sure, sometimes simple things like this can be done at the comfort of our home.  :lol:

kwarny

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #41 on: 17 May 2013, 08:05 am »
I think, the lower the frequecies that harder is to located as what AJ said. In a real world, we dont listen to test tone, we listen to musics with a range of low frequencies, and that helps us locate where is comming from.

This is not directed towards you.  Saw some members talking about localization. 

I use to be able to localize subs.  I then bought a nicer one.  The majority of people ask if this sub is on even during bass heavy songs.  Sometimes I think that I can localize it.  My hypothesis is that over time I became better in detecting what frequencies are lower bass and my mind knows where I put the sub so I think I can hear the notes coming from the driver.  After hearing an infinite baffle system with 8 15" drivers, I think the majority of people's predictions of the system would conflict with their blind listening evaluations. 

AJinFLA contributed a great post.

If you do measurements of frequency along the speaker response from measuring on the rear, there will be a big gap in response. The high will be dminish over the lows. Im not sure if that would still qualify as omni if you get a dimish response from a different angle.

Are these from your own personal measurements or perhaps from this thread?
http://www.avsforum.com/t/1352163/dual-opposed-subwoofer-outdoor-spl-compensation

Perhaps I could do outdoor measurements to see if the monopole sub is only affected like that in-room. 

bpape

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #42 on: 17 May 2013, 12:11 pm »
Well in this case, what is left is the woofer and the baffle. The enclosure no longer is part of the contributing factor. In an open baffle, when you get in 90 of axis, there will be a cancelation of front and rear waves, so how does that constitute a omni?

Just because it's OB does not stop it radiating omni.  In fact, it MUST radiate omni in order to create the cancellation you see at the sides of an OB.  If it did not radiate in that fashion, the cancellation could not occur.

Bryan

JohnR

Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #43 on: 17 May 2013, 12:49 pm »
Uhm... no I don't think so, the front and rear waves can't be "omni" while they are one side of the baffle.


JohnR

Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #44 on: 17 May 2013, 12:54 pm »
Yes AJ, i undertand that in a enclosed sub, most of the frequencies will wrap around the sub itself. But this is also dependent to the baffle length. Though, no one will make a sub with 20 feet long baffle, the example is to show that the frequency it self is dependent to the baffle length. If you do measurement of a sub with 20 fett baffle, from front and back, you will end up will different response, specially to the 20 feet wave length frequency. In this case, at least an enclosed subwoofer ( the whole unit box and the woofer) is not a ominirectional source. The woofer becomes  the radiating source, right? Because thats what the vibrations starts and create that low frequency. The frequencies will wrap around the sub from the front and not from behind.

Yes, the wavelength has to be large with respect to the box size. AJ did imply that I think.

ricardojoa

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #45 on: 17 May 2013, 01:25 pm »
Just because it's OB does not stop it radiating omni.  In fact, it MUST radiate omni in order to create the cancellation you see at the sides of an OB.  If it did not radiate in that fashion, the cancellation could not occur.

Bryan

I really thought that the cancelation was due to the front and rear waves of th woofer. Am i missing something?

JohnR

Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #46 on: 17 May 2013, 01:29 pm »
Well, the analysis of an ideal dipole assumes that both positive and negative sources are omnidirectional. The dipole as a whole is not though. And an OB is an approximation of a dipole...  :scratch:

TRADERXFAN

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #47 on: 17 May 2013, 01:34 pm »
That's not conjecture. When a (sub) driver is pushed hard, it will generate non-linearities (distortion) in it's acoustic output (from the motor, etc) after the electrical filter.

Well, in the case Medium Jim gave, where given stereo signal to separate left and right subs it would not do this, and only does it when given mono... if that is accurate the explanation here doesn't fit. It would be true on both cases and only when driven hard.

I think it is actual musical information that is being produced from the subs, higher than the crossover would indicate, and not a matter of distortion.

Also, forgot to mention before, a down firing sub has similar benefit to the bandpass at reducing the "stray" acoustic output.

-Tony
 

ricardojoa

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #48 on: 17 May 2013, 02:05 pm »
Yes, the wavelength has to be large with respect to the box size. AJ did imply that I think.

Yes, i know AJ pointed out. He also pointed the low frequencies radiated hemispherically. But the frequecies  will always radiated from the woofer to the back. That seems to indicate some form of direction.

medium jim

Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #49 on: 17 May 2013, 02:21 pm »
The fly in the ointment is those who argue against Stereo Bass.  Understand, if the argument that bass isn't directional at lower frequencies, then it should make any difference if one runs them stereo or mono!

Jim

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #50 on: 17 May 2013, 02:36 pm »
Medium Jim,
This isn't proof of anything wrong with what was said. If it is because the content above the expected crossover point is getting through (not hitting an acoustical "brick wall") that causes it,  then the culprit is not actually bass frequencies being played in mono.

medium jim

Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #51 on: 17 May 2013, 02:51 pm »
Medium Jim,
This isn't proof of anything wrong with what was said. If it is because the content above the expected crossover point is getting through (not hitting an acoustical "brick wall") that causes it,  then the culprit is not actually bass frequencies being played in mono.

Tony:

I agree, and that is my point.   Science has a big place in all of this, but it tests in perfect situations, the real world is less than perfect.  The point for me is to replicate music as live as possible and that means with some warts and mollusks along the way.   The discussion is very valid, but too much is a personal choice thing in the end.  I have respect for each and every one who shares the same love for music as I do and that includes the choices that they make to get their preferred sound.   

It would be a very staid and boring arena if we all believed the same things.   It not about right or wrong as much as it is being about what works best for you, you and even me.

Jim

AJinFLA

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #52 on: 17 May 2013, 02:55 pm »
Well, in the case Medium Jim gave, where given stereo signal to separate left and right subs it would not do this, and only does it when given mono... if that is accurate the explanation here doesn't fit. It would be true on both cases and only when driven hard.

I think it is actual musical information that is being produced from the subs, higher than the crossover would indicate, and not a matter of distortion.

Also, forgot to mention before, a down firing sub has similar benefit to the bandpass at reducing the "stray" acoustic output.

-Tony
I don't understand the first part of your response, but the middle part is incorrect. It has nothing to do with music, stereo/mono or the crossover itself. The slope could be 24db or 240db, it's irrelevant. Because the source of the detectable HF components are being generated in/by the driver itself, after the amp/XO. No amount of filtering the input signal has any effect. The caveat here is that the driver is being driven hard enough into non-linearity for it to create harmonics high enough in frequency and intensity as to be detectable.
Down firing would be very limited in effectiveness as the harmonics can fall into "mid" bass frequencies that the down firing orientation/floor absorption do little/nothing to attenuate. A damped bandpass would be far more effective. I think that's why Earl favored them. Though he may be leaning towards sealed these days. Which is smart :wink: (but too long for me to go into technically).
Please note that I have been careful not to say that the 80hz (clean, without detectable harmonics) guideline for (non) localization is absolute. It isn't. Things are a bit more complex that that, but it is still a good guideline.

cheers,

AJ

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #53 on: 17 May 2013, 02:58 pm »
I don't understand the first part of your response, but the middle part is incorrect. It has nothing to do with music, stereo/mono or the crossover itself. The slope could be 24db or 240db, it's irrelevant. Because the source of the detectable HF components are being generated in/by the driver itself, after the amp/XO. No amount of filtering the input signal has any effect. The caveat here is that the driver is being driven hard enough into non-linearity for it to create harmonics high enough in frequency and intensity as to be detectable.
Down firing would be very limited in effectiveness as the harmonics can fall into "mid" bass frequencies that the down firing orientation/floor absorption do little/nothing to attenuate. A damped bandpass would be far more effective. I think that's why Earl favored them. Though he may be leaning towards sealed these days. Which is smart :wink: (but too long for me to go into technically).
Please note that I have been careful not to say that the 80hz (clean, without detectable harmonics) guideline for (non) localization is absolute. It isn't. Things are a bit more complex that that, but it is still a good guideline.

cheers,

AJ

You quoted my response to Jim. Jim postulated that if you drive dual subs from mono signal soundstage collapses but doesn't if you supply stereo signal to separate subs, left and right.

That is why it doesn't make sense to say its about distortion.

-- also Scotty was saying same thing I did, but clearer ( and beat me to it!)

andy_c

Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #54 on: 17 May 2013, 03:08 pm »
Down firing would be very limited in effectiveness as the harmonics can fall into "mid" bass frequencies that the down firing orientation/floor absorption do little/nothing to attenuate. A damped bandpass would be far more effective. I think that's why Earl favored them. Though he may be leaning towards sealed these days. Which is smart :wink: (but too long for me to go into technically).

Yes, it looks like Earl is concentrating on sealed boxes now.

bpape

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #55 on: 17 May 2013, 04:34 pm »
I really thought that the cancelation was due to the front and rear waves of th woofer. Am i missing something?

It is - but from the fact that they are naturally out of phase. The fact that each of the phases radiates spherically is what allows them to cancel to the sides.  If they were not radiating through the full 180 degree arc (and farther), they could not cancel.

Also, in general all should remember that we're tending to concentrate to the sides - the radiation is 3 dimensional.  The waves do not cancel vertically as they do to the sides.

Bryan

ricardojoa

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #56 on: 17 May 2013, 04:52 pm »
It is - but from the fact that they are naturally out of phase. The fact that each of the phases radiates spherically is what allows them to cancel to the sides.  If they were not radiating through the full 180 degree arc (and farther), they could not cancel.

Also, in general all should remember that we're tending to concentrate to the sides - the radiation is 3 dimensional.  The waves do not cancel vertically as they do to the sides.

Bryan

The fact that you imply that the frequency radiate from a 180 degree arc, tells me that this is a direction to it. From front to back. The frequencies can not radiate from the rear from to the front, right? They will eventually radiate back to front once they finish a cycle, but the source will always star from the woofer itself. My unsdestanding of omni would be, imaging  a sphere as point source with all the pins on it, so much that they will cover the sphere itself and make another layer over with pins. These pins represent the directions.
Thats why i dont see how a woofer though it radiated from a 180 arc back consider omni. Confusing and contradicting.

bpape

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #57 on: 17 May 2013, 05:37 pm »
The waves will actually wrap around the sides of the cabinet and come off of the front wall of the room.  This is well known and proven.  Look up SBIR.  Believe what you will but this does happen.

My point in the arc was in line with the discussion on OB speakers where they tend to cancel at the sides. 

ricardojoa

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #58 on: 17 May 2013, 06:46 pm »
The waves will actually wrap around the sides of the cabinet and come off of the front wall of the room.  This is well known and proven.  Look up SBIR.  Believe what you will but this does happen.

My point in the arc was in line with the discussion on OB speakers where they tend to cancel at the sides.

Ok, if they wrap or radiate around why not just say it that way, why use the word omnidirectional? I have never heard omnidirectional word apply into something that is not an object. A bass frequency is a measurement and can not radiate on its own. A subwoofer can. So what would be the proper way to discribe omni directional, the bass, the frequecies or the sub?
Is not like i dont want to believe, but wording seems off to me.

bpape

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Re: Omnidirectional bass or subwoofer or what?
« Reply #59 on: 17 May 2013, 07:05 pm »
Ok, if they wrap or radiate around why not just say it that way, why use the word omnidirectional? I have never heard omnidirectional word apply into something that is not an object. A bass frequency is a measurement and can not radiate on its own. A subwoofer can. So what would be the proper way to discribe omni directional, the bass, the frequecies or the sub?
Is not like i dont want to believe, but wording seems off to me.

Terminology.   Radiating in all directions from a source is omni meaning all.  The reason it wraps around is because there is a baffle stopping it from going back immediately. As soon as it can, it does.  If you had a baffle that was only as big as the woofer itself, it would wrap throw waves backward immediately as soon as the wave left the cone.  The cone being considered the source.

This has turned into an argument more about semantics than anything else. I'm just saying bass goes in all directions in 3 dimensions.  Use whatever term pleases you.