I have found that the sound quality improved (to my ears) when using a quality tube preamp between the source and the mighty little JVC. But with or without the pre, I am feeling a bit of lack of slam/attack. Bass quantity is ok, just seems a little woolly and, well, some attack would be welcome. I don't think it is my room 'cause when I owned an Aragon 8008 (yes, yes, I know) it had plenty of cojones with the same room, same equipment.
I have been reading more and more about impedance matching and wonder if this might be the culprit; certainly an easy place to start. So here are my numbers... any with skill in deciphering these please chime in.
CDP: output voltage: >= 2V, 47 kilo-ohms, into...
Tube preamp: input imp: 100 kilo-ohms, output imp: 180 ohms into...
JVC F10: input imp: 330mV, 47 kilo-ohms, passive biamping into...
full-sized speakers: 4 ohm nominal (am told it is fairly stable), 90 db eff, 28 hz bass-rated (realistically I think 35).
Also using REL Strata II subwoofer wired using Neutrik connector to bass (surround) output of JVC.
Room is fairly large and has a mix of surfaces, carpet and soft furniture along with some wood, glass and stone (fireplace). One thing is, it has virtualy no back wall but a large opening behind the listening position, leading to another room.
Any problems you see here? Theoretically, and not counting the tube effect, should the sound be better or worse going direct to the F10 and removing the preamp? Or do I just not have enough power there, given the speakers (not about to change) and the room (ditto) , and should consider a more gutsy amp?